In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section with special direction for each part.
Questions 1 to 4.
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and questions spoken in English. The dialogues and the questions will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying.
After you listen to the dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers, and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear:
Man : I give up! I’ll stop learning French.
Woman : Why do you say that? You are making a lot of progress.
Man : No, I’m not. I’ve tried hard but still I cannot speak it well.
Woman : How come? You can speak Arabic, Hindi, Japanese and even Russian well, can’t you?
Narrator : What language is difficult for the man to learn?
The best answer to this question is “French”. Therefore you should choose answer (C).
1. A. Job vacancy.
B. Job interview.
C. Printing company.
D. Getting high salary.
E. Finding a job.
2. A. A novel.
B. A comic.
C. A magazine.
D. A science book.
E. An English Grammar Book.
3. A. The exam is easy.
B. This time will not fly.
C. The exam is in three weeks.
D. He knows many things about the exam.
E. He still has three days for the exam preparation.
4. A. She came to Nisa’s party.
B. She couldn’t make a party.
C. She had to go a doctor.
D. She invited the man to a party.
E. She didn’t go to Nisa’s party.
Questions: 5 to 7.
In this part of the test, you will hear some incomplete dialogues spoken in English, followed by four responses, also spoken in English. The dialogues and the responses will be spoken twice. They not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. You have to choose the best response to each question.
Now listen to a sample question.
Man : Hey, Cindy could you do me a favour?
Woman : What can I do for you?
Man : Would you mind going to the post office to send my letter?
Woman : ....
Narrator : What is the woman’s possible response?
A. I am all out. Sorry.
B. I love to write letters.
C. Sure, by all means.
D. It’s next to the police station.
Narrator : The best answer to the question is: ‘Sure, by all means.” Therefore you should choose answer (C).
5. Mark your answers on your answer sheet.
6. Mark your answers on your answer sheet.
7. Mark your answers on your answer sheet.
Questions 8 to 11.
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues or monologues spoken in English. The dialogues or monologues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you listen to the dialogue or monologue, look at the five pictures provided in your test book, and decide which would be the most suitable one with the dialogue or monologue you have heard.
Questions 12 to 15.
In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying.
After you hear the monologue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.
Questions 12 and 13 are based on the following monologue.
12. A. Paris.
B. The Louvre.
C. Notre Dame.
D. The crowded city.
E. The City of Light.
13. A. The Louvre.
B. The Cathedral.
C. The Eiffel Tower.
D. The lovely garden.
The light structure.
Questions 14 and 15 are based on the following monologue.
14. A. Other beasts.
B. The water.
C. The frogs.
D. A lake.
E. A horse.
15. A. They ate an animal.
B. They lived in a lake.
C. They saw wild horses.
D. They went somewhere.
E. They jumped into water
. This is the end of listening section
The following text is for questions 16 and 17
16. The company suggested that Marvin take a computer course in order ....
A. to be promoted as director of the center
B. to meet the qualification it requires
C. to handle the computer training center
D. to support his performance in the center
E. to undertake his probationary period in the company
17. Marvin will register for the class by ....
A. talking with the human resources officer
B. visiting the training center website
C. calling the training center
D. e-mailing Sam Silliman
E. meeting Silliman
The following text is for questions 18 and 19
18. Those who successfully complete the course will be given ....
A. free tuition
B. a further training course
C. jobs in big hotels in the colony
D. a chance to stay in the colony’s leading hotels for one month
E. membership of the Hong Kong Institute of Hotel management
19. What requirement is needed by an applicant to apply for the hotel work training?
A. Able to speak Mandarin.
B. Secondary school graduate.
C. Good knowledge of English.
D. Reputable university graduate.
E. 2-year experience in hotel work.
The following text is for questions 20 to 22
20. Rafael Nadal has pulled out of London Olympics because he ....
A. is not fit enough to compete
B. will not be with the Spanish delegation
C. has just been from the Beijing Olympics
D. did not want to be the flag bearer for Spain
E. was eliminated in the 2nd round of Wimbledon
21. In Wimbledon, Rafael Nedal ....
A. was to be the flag bearer for Spain
B. was injured during the Wimbledon match
C. beat the world’s 100th ranked Lukas Rosol
D. defeated the world’s 100th ranked Lukas Rosol
E. was eliminated by the world’s 100th ranked Lukas Rosol
22. Paragraph 1 tells us that Rafael Nedal decides to ....
A. leave London soon
B. leave the Olympics
C. compete in the Olympics
D. play in the London Olympics
E. cancel his participation in the Olympics
The following text is for questions 23 to 25
23. What is the text about?
A. The commercialization of the mice for drugs development.
B. The use of mice in medical research against cancer.
C. The implanting pepole’s disease into animal.
D. Human immune system called mini me.
E. The drugs treatment on the mice.
24. Why did the research use mice? Because ....
A. it will not do any harm to the patient
B. the mice can serve as your personal guinea pig
C. the result will help prolong the lives of cancer patients
D. the mice contain a cancerous tumor
E. the result will help improve the medical technique
25. “... a cancerous tumor extracted from his lungs.” (paragraph 2)
The underlined word is synonimous with ....
The following text is for questions 26 to 28
26. What did Victoria do before being a solo singer?
A. Married to David Beckham.
B. Worked as fashion designer.
C. Joined The Spice Girls.
D. Created fashion style.
E. Wrote many books.
27. We found in the text that ....
A. Victoria named her fragrance by dvb style
B. Beckham is Victoria’s autobiography
C. Beckham is Victoria’s brand for her fragrance
D. Posh Spice is the title of her new album
E. Spice girls is Victoria’s label for her wardrobe
28. Based on the text, what do we know about Victoria?
A. She is an ordinary woman.
B. She is a multi-talented woman.
C. She designed The Spice Girls.
D. She married to an ordinary person.
E. She arranged many songs for The Spice Girls.
The following text is for questions 29 to 32
29. How geyser is produced?
A. By the rise of temperature pressure functioning hot steam.
B. From a huge tension of heated water that coming out from the earth crack.
C. From the heated temperature in earth crack that absorbsing water.
D. From the temperature and absorbed water that occurs on earth surface.
E. By the hot water and temperature of hot rock that occurs on the earth surface.
30. Steam and hot water shoot out of the surface because of ....
A. hot rock and water
B. temperature and pressure
C. greater pressure
D. high temperature and increased pressure
E. underground temperature and increassed pressure
31. Reservoir where the water can be stored will be .... after eruption and resupplying again
32. “... and expelling more than ten thousand gallons during each eruption.” (Paragraph 2)
The underlined word is closest in meaning to ....
The following text is for questions 33 to 35
33. Why does the natural environment become one of the serious problem associated with the faster planes and cheaper flight? Because ....
A. it easily started an epidemic before their illness was diagnosed
B. it can be destroyed by too many visitors
C. the health problem will increase
D. they carry visible items of wealth
E. it can increase crime rate
34. Why is the crime rate increasing due to the new industry?
A. Some tourists carry visible items of wealth.
B. The tourists are spreading contagious diseases.
C. The government is planning to restict visitors to some coral cays.
D. The new industry makes the number of unemployment increase.
E. The tourists come by plane.
35. “One carrier returning home could easily start an epidemic before their illness wasdiagnosed.” (Paragraph 3)
The underlined word means ....
The following text is for questions 36 to 38
36. The story of Harry Potter began when ....
A. he became an orphan
B. his uncle and aunt adopted him
C. Voldemort was killed
D. his parents killed Voldemort
E. his uncle and aunt killed Voldemort
37. When Harry Potter lived with his uncle and aunt ....
A. he felt uncomfortable
B. he befriended Voldemort
C. things improved in his life
D. he had fantasy about magic
E. he became ordinary people
38. We can conclude from the first paragraph that ....
A. Harry Potter’s parents were muggle
B. Harry Potter lived in a magical place
C. Harry Potter is a relative of Voldemort
D. Harry Potter’s parents adopted him as an orphan
E. Harry Potter enjoyed his life with his uncle and aunt
The following text is for questions 39 to 41
39. What is one of the advantages of internet?
A. To create the misuse of time.
B. To easily find inappropriate person.
C. To chat with love ones only.
D. To connect people in the other part of the world.
E. To spread issues related to children healthy mental life.
40. What is the main idea of paragraph 2?
A. The internet could create havoc and destruction.
B. The internet could facilitate communication.
C. The internet has more advantages than disadvantages.
D. Many modern devices can be connected to the internet.
E. The internet has become the most noticeable innovation.
41. All in all, the writer believes that the internet is ....
A. very harmful
C. very useful
The following text is for questions 42 to 44
42. How does a complete respiration cycle work?
A. It delivers oxygen to the cells and removes carbon dioxide from the cells.
B. It works apart from respiratory and circulatory system.
C. It removes carbon dioxide from the human body.
D. It delivers oxygen to the circulatory system.
E. It inhales air from outside the human body.
43. The first phase of respiration completes when ....
A. oxygen changes to carbon dioxide
B. the air goes from the lungs to the heart
C. carbon dioxide moves to the bloostream
D. oxygen moves from bloodstream to the heart
E. oxygen moves from the bloodstream into cells
44. We know from the text that the respiratory system ....
A. removes oxygen from the blood stream
B. exhales oxygen and inhales carbon dioxide
C. is the producer of oxygen and carbon dioxide
D. inhales oxygen and exhales carbon dioxide
E. is the processing center of healthy air
The following text is for questions 45 and 46
45. The subject which is not offered for the registration is ....
46. Besides filling in the registration form, the student have to ....
A. bring the registration form
B. accept the administration receipts
C. complete the registration payment
D. offer the spring semester subjects
E. make an exception form to the administration
47. Arrange these sentences below into a good order
1. Grate the cheese into the bowl and stir.
2. Then turn omelette with a spatula when it brown.
3. First, crack an egg into a bowl.
4. Heat the oil in a frying fan, and pour the mixture into the frying fan.
5. Next cook both side and it is ready to serve.
6. Whisk the eggs with a fork until it is smooth.
A. 3 – 5 – 1 – 2 – 4 – 6
B. 3 – 6 – 1 – 4 – 2 – 5
C. 3 – 2 – 6 – 1 – 4 – 5
D. 3 – 2 – 4 – 1 – 6 – 5
E. 3 – 1 – 6 – 4 – 2 – 5
Questions 48 to 50, complete the following text with the words provided.
D. sent into
E. came into
Text untuk nomor 16 dan 17
Text untuk nomor 18 dan 19
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Text untuk nomor 45 dan 46
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